I'll admit I haven't studied zero frets much. How does a zero fret do that? It really doesn't make much sense to me
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On a zero fret, the strings ALL rest on a fret, all the time. The role of the nut as resting strings is removed - and so, if a normal nut is cause for sharpening and flat, then that won't be occur.
On a corrective nut, it moves the nut position seperate for each string right? This is to deal with tension occuring at the nut.
But, on a zero fret system, the open fret is not cause for (much) tension - and the "nut" on a zero fret acts merely as a holder for the strings not to slide off the guitar. So where's the tension occuring? Way back at the tuning pegs, way out of the way of the fretting areas, thus removing the tension from the playing area.
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what a load of bollocks.
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i agree...i think "masterminds" needs to study a bit more so that he can see that the root problem being solved by a compensated nut is not incorrect slot depth,as he seems to believe.
unfortunately,i feel that a man(assumption,as thedoctor knows i may be jumping to conclusions) who argues based on assumption more than 80% of the time may never open his mind far enough to really learn